No entiendo

Question

Note that in El Futuro Simple, only the 3rd person form habrá is ever used on its own and it means there will be.

I don't understand the meaning of this statement. Can you explain and/or give an example?

Accepted Answer

Hola Gerald R.
The statement is explaining how the verb "haber" is used in the simple future tense. In Spanish, "haber" in the simple future tense can be conjugated as "habré", "habrás", "habrá", etc. However, when "haber" is used to mean 'there will be', only the third person singular form, "habrá", is used.
For example:
Habrá una fiesta mañana. (There will be a party tomorrow.)
In this sentence, "habrá" is used to mean 'there will be'. No other form of "haber" is used in this context. So, you wouldn't say "habré", "habrás", or any other form when you want to express 'there will be'.
I hope this clarifies the statement!
Buen finde
Silvia

Answer

Muchas gracias.