Pideselas

Korbel K.C1Kwiziq Q&A regular contributor

Pideselas

In the test question about Pideselas.. The aswers the computer listed were:

1. Order them for them

2. Order them for her

3. Order them for him.

I feel #2 and #3 answers are wrong. Would you please check of that.  I could be wrong myself.  Thank you.

Asked 6 years ago
InmaNative Spanish expert teacher in Kwiziq

Hola Korbel

"Se" here is referring to "to/for him", "to/for her" or "to/for them". It is the indirect object pronoun that turns into "se" when le/les precedes a direct object pronoun lo/la/los/las. This is the case here with Píde-se-las.

There are three possible answers because that "se" could be referring to any of those three pronouns (le=to him, le=to her or les=to them).

If we give nouns to those pronouns, it'll be easier to see.

Let's take these sentences:

Order some beers for him - Pide cervezas para él. 

Pide-le-las = Pídeselas

Order some beers for her - Pide cervezas para ella.

Pide-le-las = Pídeselas

Order some beers for them - Pide cervezas para ellos/ellas.

Pide-les-las = Pídeselas

The three forms coincide as le/les turn into "se".

"Las" never changes as it is always referring to "cervezas" (las).

I hope this clarifies your doubt.

Saludos

Inma

Korbel K.C1Kwiziq Q&A regular contributor

Thanks Inma. Explanantion is clear. If only I could use it in practice without getting confused in the process.

Saludos.

K

ire8m ..A2Kwiziq community member

Soy nativa de España. Es pídeselas (a ellos) con tilde.

De nada.

Pideselas

In the test question about Pideselas.. The aswers the computer listed were:

1. Order them for them

2. Order them for her

3. Order them for him.

I feel #2 and #3 answers are wrong. Would you please check of that.  I could be wrong myself.  Thank you.

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