"para leérmelo"

John O.C1 Kwiziq Q&A super contributor

"para leérmelo"

Hola,

This seems to translate as "in order to read it [to myself]." Is there a reason why both direct and indirect objects are used, and the direct object is not sufficient - i.e. leerlo??

Saludos

John

Asked 5 years ago
InmaKwiziq team member

Hola John

Sometimes we use a verb with the reflexive pronoun in order to "intensify" the meaning of the verb. Grammatically "leerlo" would also be correct, but in this case we used the pronoun with this purpose. Here are other examples:

Se lo comió sin protestar. (He ate it without complaining.)

Me compré un bolso muy caro. ( I bought a very expensive handbag.)

Here is a bit of information about pronominal verbs that will help.

Saludos

Inma

"para leérmelo"

Hola,

This seems to translate as "in order to read it [to myself]." Is there a reason why both direct and indirect objects are used, and the direct object is not sufficient - i.e. leerlo??

Saludos

John

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