....a Luis a cenar vs ....a luis cenar

Leo H.A2Kwiziq community member

....a Luis a cenar vs ....a luis cenar

In the sentence ¿Deben invitar a Luis a cenar? I am wondering why the sentence does not read ¿Deben invitar a Luis cenar?

What is the grammar rule that requires the second 'a'?

Thanks!

Leo

Asked 2 years ago
David M.C1 Kwiziq Q&A super contributor

Hello there Leo -

Some verbs are followed by a preposition; others do not take one. Furthermore, only specific prepositions are correct, while others are simply "wrong". Thus, it is best to regard the preposition as an integral part of the verb. Many verbs allow more than one preposition, depending on context.

Invitar [almost] always takes "a"; we just have to accept that as mandatory; [My "Diccionario de Uso de las Preposiciones españolas" by Emile Slager; ESPASA 2004, implies that "invitar para ..." might also be seen occasionally]. 

Much the same system or pattern [or "rule"] prevails in English - particularly with a verb+noun structure. 

InmaKwiziq team member

Hola Leo

Invitar is very often used in this structure: "invitar a alguien a hacer algo", so you have the personal "a", e.g. "Invité a María..., and an extra "a" before the infinitive: Invité a María a cenar, Invité a María a venir a mi casa,...; you can also use a noun and you still need the preposition"a": Invité a María a una copa, Invité a María a mi fiesta, etc...

As David said, some verbs are used with a specific preposition and it is an integral part of their meaning.

Saludos

....a Luis a cenar vs ....a luis cenar

In the sentence ¿Deben invitar a Luis a cenar? I am wondering why the sentence does not read ¿Deben invitar a Luis cenar?

What is the grammar rule that requires the second 'a'?

Thanks!

Leo

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